A 20-year-old cisgender man presents to a clinic with 5 days of dysuria and right-sided groin pain. He is sexually active with cisgender men and has been treated for rectal gonorrhea within the past year. He regularly engages in insertive and receptive anal sex. Physical examination is notable for bulky, tender, right-sided inguinal adenopathy. A diagnosis of lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is suspected.
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding diagnostic testing for LGV?
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Question Last Updated
March 29th, 2022
March 29th, 2022
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