A 33-year-old cisgender woman presents to a clinic after receiving a phone call from the department of public health informing her that a recent sex partner of hers, a cisgender man, was diagnosed with chlamydial infection. On further discussion, she was informed that her sex partner had suspected lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV). She is now in the clinic for evaluation and feels well, without any genitourinary complaints. She has urine, rectal, and pharyngeal nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) ordered for chlamydia and gonorrhea, as well as serologic testing for HIV and syphilis. She is not pregnant.
Which one of the following is the next best step in the management of this woman?
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Question Last Updated
March 29th, 2022
March 29th, 2022
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