A 26-year-old man is evaluated in a sexual health clinic with symptoms of dysuria and urethral discharge. Seven days prior to this visit, he had condomless insertive vaginal intercourse with a woman in exchange for money. Two days prior to this visit, he had sex with a different woman—his regular sex partner—without using a condom. At this visit, he is diagnosed with urethral gonorrhea and treated with recommended therapy. Testing for chlamydia is negative. The health department is contacting the sex worker for treatment. His other regular sex partner is about to leave on an extended trip and will not be able to come to the clinic before she leaves.
Given the situation, which one of the following should be recommended for expedited partner therapy of gonococcal infection for the girlfriend in this case?
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Question Last Updated
February 4th, 2025
February 4th, 2025
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