A 32-year-old gender nonbinary person is evaluated for a 3-day history of abdominal cramping and non-bloody diarrhea. They deny fever, chills, urethral symptoms, anorectal pain, anal discharge, and other systemic symptoms. They engage in receptive anal intercourse as well as anilingus (oral-anal contact) and report having four cisgender male sex partners in the past 6 months. They rarely use condoms. They tested negative for HIV approximately 4 months prior. On further discussion, they report two of their sex partners have recently had similar symptoms.
Which one of the following is the most likely sexually transmitted pathogen that would cause enteritis in this individual?
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Question Last Updated
March 21st, 2022
March 21st, 2022
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