A 24-year-old woman is diagnosed with neurosyphilis after presenting with stroke-like symptoms and a positive treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test (titer of 1:128). A lumbar puncture is performed with cerebrospinal fluid analysis that shows protein of 64 mg/dL, white blood cell count of 18 (80% lymphocytes), and a positive cerebrospinal fluid Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) titer of 1:64. Tests for other causes of stroke, as well as an HIV test, are negative. She has a 2-year history of exchanging sex for money, but has never been tested or treated for syphilis. She denies any history of allergic reactions to antibiotics.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial therapy for treatment of neurosyphilis in this woman?
Sign In or Register Progress Not Saved!
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Question Last Updated
February 4th, 2025
February 4th, 2025
Steps to Acquire CE for this Question Bank Topic:
1
Answer
Answer all questions
2
Score 80%+
Answer correctly
3
Claim CE
Choose CNE or CME+MOC
4
Give Feedback
Complete survey
5