A 20-year-old woman is seen for an initial pregnancy evaluation and screening labs diagnose her with late latent syphilis. She is scheduled to receive 3 doses of 2.4 million units of benzathine penicillin G given 1 week apart. She receives her first dose in the clinic, her second dose exactly 1 week later, but for her third dose she does not return on the scheduled date. Following outreach efforts, she is reached and returns to clinic 11 days after the second dose.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for syphilis at this time?
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Question Last Updated
November 5th, 2021
November 5th, 2021
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