A 33-year-old cisgender man develops urethral discharge and is diagnosed with gonorrhea; he is treated by his primary care medical provider with recommended therapy. His symptoms resolved after treatment, but he returns to his primary care clinic 10 days later with recurrent purulent urethral discharge. A Gram’s stain on the smear of the urethral discharge shows multiple gram-negative diplococci. He reports one new sex partner in the past week.
Which one of the following options is the next best step to address this man’s symptoms?
Figure 1. Urethral Discharge
Photograph from Negusse Ocbamichael, PA; Public Health—Seattle & King County STD Clinic
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Question Last Updated
March 29th, 2022
March 29th, 2022
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