A 20-year-old woman has a positive result for cervical gonorrhea on routine screening. Testing for chlamydia was negative. She was treated for a prior episode of gonococcal infection 1 year ago and had an anaphylactic reaction to ceftriaxone at that time. She otherwise appears well. Her last menstrual period was 9 days ago, and a urine pregnancy test was negative.
Which one of the following is the recommended treatment regimen for cervical gonococcal infection in a person who cannot tolerate cephalosporins, including ceftriaxone?
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Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
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