A 41-year-old man is seen with nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and jaundice. His main sex partner has chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, and they regularly have condomless sex. After an extensive evaluation, this 41-year-old is diagnosed with acute HBV infection, but he does not have any clinical or laboratory evidence of liver failure.
Which one of the following is recommended for the routine management of acute HBV infection?
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Question Last Updated
August 16th, 2024
August 16th, 2024
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