A 38-year-old man with advanced HIV and a CD4 count of 46 cells/mm3 presents to clinic with fever and coalescent, necrotizing lesions on multiple areas of his body, including the oropharynx. He is having significant difficulty swallowing and is unable to tolerate pills. Swabs taken from several lesions test positive for mpox. He is admitted to the hospital.
Which one of the following is TRUE when considering the best initial treatment option?
Sign In or Register Progress Not Saved!
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Question Last Updated
March 11th, 2025
March 11th, 2025
Steps to acquire a Certificate for this Lesson:
1
Answer Questions
Answer the board-review style questions
2
Answer Correctly
Score 80%+
3
Give Feedback
Complete survey
4
