A 31-year-old gender nonbinary individual presents with a new vaginal discharge that started 1 week ago. They describe the discharge as thin and grayish-white in color, with an unpleasant odor. They deny fevers, chills, pain with urination, vaginal itching, pain during sex, or other systemic symptoms. They are sexually active with cisgender men and gender nonbinary individuals. They report four sex partners in the past 6 months. After evaluation in the clinic, they are diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. A urine pregnancy test is performed and is negative.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate therapy for bacterial vaginosis in this individual?
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2024
March 13th, 2024
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