A 32-year-old woman has routine cervical cytology testing and high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) cotesting at her annual visit. She is healthy, and sexually transmitted infection tests, including HIV, are all negative. Her cervical cytology is normal, but her high-risk HPV test (without genotyping) is positive.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this woman?
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Question Last Updated
March 11th, 2025
March 11th, 2025
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