A 36-year-old woman is treated for cervicitis with a recommended regimen but continues to have persistent signs of cervicitis at her follow-up visit 10 days later. The initial testing and repeat testing for Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, and Trichomonas vaginalis are all negative. She reports one sex partner only during the past 3 months, and this partner was also evaluated and appropriately treated as a contact 2 days after the woman’s initial evaluation. A pregnancy test is performed and is negative.
Which one of the following could be considered the most appropriate next step in the management of this woman with persistent symptoms of cervicitis?
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Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
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