A 33-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of anorectal pain and tenesmus. He reports recent insertive and receptive condomless anal intercourse. He is fully vaccinated against mpox. On the rectal examination, he has tenderness, with 1-2 very painful perianal ulcerations and mild erythema visualized on anoscopy, with some purulence but no bloody discharge. He weighs 73 kg.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial empiric treatment for acute proctitis in this man?
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2025
March 13th, 2025
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