A 32-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-day history of abdominal cramping and non-bloody diarrhea. He denies fever, chills, urethral symptoms, anorectal pain, anal discharge, and other systemic symptoms. He engages in receptive anal intercourse as well as anilingus (oral-anal contact) and reports having four male sex partners in the past 6 months. He rarely uses condoms. He tested negative for HIV approximately 4 months prior. In further discussion, he reports that two of his sex partners have recently had similar symptoms.
Which one of the following is the most likely sexually transmitted pathogen that would cause enteritis in this individual?
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2025
March 13th, 2025
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