A 31-year-old man who has sex with women was recently evaluated in a sexual health clinic with symptoms consistent with urethritis. He had condomless sex several days ago with a new partner, during which time he had insertive vaginal sex and insertive oral sex. On physical examination, a small amount of mucopurulent urethral discharge is observed. A Gram stain performed on a sample of the urethral discharge shows 12 white blood cells per high power field but no evidence of gram-negative intracellular diplococci. He is diagnosed with nongonococcal urethritis.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the causes of nongonococcal urethritis in men who have sex with women?
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2025
March 13th, 2025
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