A 21-year-old man who recently had sex with a new male partner presents to a sexual health clinic for evaluation of new urethral symptoms.
Which one of the following is considered sufficient to diagnose urethritis in a man who has symptoms consistent with urethritis?
Figure 1. Urethral Swab Gram Stain
This urethral swab Gram stain shows abundant intracellular gram-negative diplococci consistent with Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection.
Source: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Public Health Image Library (Joe Miller, 1979)
Figure 2. Gram's Stain Showing Nongonococcal Urethritis
This image is a photomicrograph of a Gram-stained urethral exudate sample from a male who presented with a case of urethritis. Note the abundant number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) without any visible organisms.
Source: Dr. Norman Jacobs and Centers for Disease Control Public Health Image Library
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2025
March 13th, 2025
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