A 23-year-old cisgender man is evaluated in a sexual clinic for perianal and buttock warts. He first noticed the lesions a few months prior and denies any pain or bleeding. He is sexually active with men and rarely uses condoms. Recent testing for HIV and syphilis was negative. Physical examination reveals a cluster of verrucous lesions in the perianal area and gluteal folds (Figure 1). The lesions are hypopigmented without induration, bleeding, or ulceration. He does not want to come back to the clinic for treatment and states he is comfortable with self-applied treatment.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate patient-applied topical option for the management of anal warts in this man?
Figure 1. Warts in Gluteal Fold
Photograph credit: Negusse Ocbamichael, PA; Public Health—Seattle & King County Sexual Health Clinic
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Question Last Updated
August 10th, 2022
August 10th, 2022
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