A 31-year-old cisgender woman who is at 35 weeks of gestation presents to care with concern for a new labial wart. Her prior Pap smears and a high-risk HPV DNA test have been negative. She has no other medical problems and recent HIV testing was negative. Physical examination reveals a new 2 cm verrucous non-friable lesion with no atypical features on her labia minora. There are no intravaginal or cervical lesions.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the management of labial warts during pregnancy?
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Question Last Updated
August 10th, 2022
August 10th, 2022
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