A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician for a painless vulvar rash noticed one day ago by her mother when bathing her daughter. The child has no other rashes or oral lesions. On physical examination, the medical provider observes a painless, shallow ulcer in the vulvar region. Furthermore, several features in the history and evaluation cause the medical provider to consider sexual abuse. Laboratory testing shows a negative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for herpes simplex virus, a positive syphilis IgG, and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) with a 1:32 titer. All other laboratory tests, including tests for other sexually transmitted infections, are negative.
Which one of the following is the most plausible explanation for the findings in this child?
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2025
March 13th, 2025
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