A 39-year-old woman presents to clinic with a 5-day history of abnormally increased and slightly malodorous vaginal discharge. She has no dysuria or polyuria. She has been sexually active with two men in the past month and reports that she does not routinely use condoms. Point-of-care testing in clinic for HIV and pregnancy are both negative. Vaginal swabs are sent for nucleic acid amplification testing for sexually transmitted infections and are negative for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, but positive for Trichomonas vaginalis.
Which one of the following represents the best option to treat this woman’s T. vaginalis infection?
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Question Last Updated
January 20th, 2022
January 20th, 2022
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