A 32-year-old woman is seen in a walk-in clinic with a 3-day history of a frothy vaginal discharge. After a thorough evaluation for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), she is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and appropriately treated. All other tests are negative.
Which one of the following should be recommended regarding management of trichomoniasis in her male sex partners?
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Question Last Updated
March 16th, 2025
March 16th, 2025
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