A 24-year-old man is evaluated in a sexual health clinic with pain, tenderness, and swelling along the posterior aspect of his right testicle and scrotum. The pain started as a dull ache about 5 days ago and has slowly progressed in intensity since that time. He denies fevers, chills, or urethritis symptoms. He reports no recent systemic symptoms. He reports vaginal and oral insertive sex with women only. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications.
Which one of the following is the most likely infectious etiology of this man’s symptoms?
Figure 1. Epididymitis
This illustration shows characteristic inflammation and swelling of the left epididymis.
Source: illustration by Jared Travnicek Cognition Studios
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Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
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