A 61-year-old cisgender man presents with a 3-day history of pressure and pain above his left testicle. His history is significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia, which has been symptomatically partially controlled with tamsulosin. He reports only insertive vaginal intercourse with a single partner. He denies fever, chills, dysuria, hematuria, or other systemic symptoms. He does not recall recent trauma. A urine sample is sent for testing of infectious pathogens. He weighs 81 kg.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate presumptive therapy for this man’s acute epididymitis?
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Question Last Updated
April 12th, 2022
April 12th, 2022
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