A 64-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pressure and pain above his right testicle. His history is significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia, which has been symptomatically partially controlled with tamsulosin. He reports only insertive vaginal intercourse with a single partner. He denies fever, chills, dysuria, hematuria, or other systemic symptoms. He does not recall recent trauma. A urine sample is sent for testing of infectious pathogens. He weighs 81 kg.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate presumptive therapy for this man’s acute epididymitis?
Sign In or Register Progress Not Saved!
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
Steps to acquire a Certificate for this Lesson:
1
Answer Questions
Answer the board-review style questions
2
Answer Correctly
Score 80%+
3
Give Feedback
Complete survey
4