A 17-year-old man is evaluated for possible epididymitis. He reports exquisite, unilateral, left-sided scrotal and testicular pain and tenderness. The pain started suddenly about 3 hours earlier, and he denies any recent history of trauma, fever, chills, dysuria, or urethral discharge. His most recent sexual activity involved condomless vaginal intercourse approximately 10 days prior. His physical examination reveals a swollen, tender, and high-riding testicle and loss of the cremasteric reflex. In addition, palpating along the posterior region of his left spermatic cord elicits pain. A point-of-care urinalysis is performed and is negative for cells and markers of inflammation.
Which one of the following is the most important next step to take in the management of this young man?

Figure 1. Testicular Torsion
This illustration shows apparent twisting of the spermatic cord and reduced blood flow to the left testicle. The left testicle appears elevated in the scrotum compared to the right testicle.
Source: illustration by Jared Travnicek Cognition Studios
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Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
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