An 18-year-old cisgender man is evaluated by his primary medical care provider for possible epididymitis. He reports exquisite, unilateral pain and tenderness throughout his left testicle. The pain started suddenly about 3 hours earlier, and he denies any recent history of trauma, fever, chills, dysuria, or urethral discharge. His most recent sexual activity involved condomless vaginal intercourse approximately 10 days prior. His physical examination reveals a swollen, tender, and high-riding testicle and loss of the cremasteric reflex. In addition, he has pain elicited when palpating along the posterior region of his left spermatic cord. A point-of-care urinalysis is performed and is negative for cells and markers of inflammation.
What is the most important next step to take in the management of this young man?
Figure 1. Testicular Torsion
Source: illustration by Jared Travnicek Cognition Studios
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Question Last Updated
April 12th, 2022
April 12th, 2022
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