A 30-year-old man presents with a 1-week history of progressive tenderness and diffuse pain in his right scrotal area, as well as moderate dysuria. Physical examination reveals extreme tenderness along the posterolateral aspect of the right testicle. No urethral discharge is noted. He is not taking any medication and denies recent trauma or prior genitourinary procedures or operations. He reports both receptive and insertive condomless anal intercourse with men. He denies fever, chills, hematuria, or other systemic symptoms. He tested negative for HIV approximately 6 months prior.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate presumptive therapy for this individual’s acute epididymitis?
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Question Last Updated
February 4th, 2025
February 4th, 2025
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