A 30-year-old transgender woman presents with a 1-week history of progressive tenderness and diffuse pain in her right scrotal area, as well as moderate dysuria. Physical examination reveals extreme tenderness along the posterolateral aspect of the right testicle. No urethral discharge is noted. She is not taking any medication and denies recent trauma or prior genitourinary procedures or operations. She reports both receptive and insertive condomless anal intercourse with cisgender men and gender nonbinary partners. She denies fever, chills, hematuria, or other systemic symptoms. She tested negative for HIV approximately 6 months prior.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate presumptive therapy for this individual’s acute epididymitis?
Sign In or Register Progress Not Saved!
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Question Last Updated
April 12th, 2022
April 12th, 2022
Steps to Acquire CE for this Question Bank Topic:
1
Answer
Answer all questions
2
Score 80%+
Answer correctly
3
Claim CE
Choose CNE or CME+MOC
4
Give Feedback
Complete survey
5