A 27-year-old man is being evaluated for the new onset of discomfort along the posterolateral aspect of his left testicle that has gradually increased over the past 48 hours. He endorses mild dysuria over the past 1 week. In the last 6 months, he reports vaginal insertive intercourse with 4 partners. They intermittently use condoms. He denies fever, chills, or urethral discharge.
What are the most appropriate next steps for work-up of this man’s symptoms?
Sign In or Register Progress Not Saved!
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Question Last Updated
February 4th, 2025
February 4th, 2025
Steps to Acquire CE for this Question Bank Topic:
1
Answer
Answer all questions
2
Score 80%+
Answer correctly
3
Claim CE
Choose CNE or CME+MOC
4
Give Feedback
Complete survey
5