A 32-year-old man is evaluated in a sexual health clinic with a 4-day history of painless penile lesions (Figure 1). His sex partners are men, and he has had 2 partners in the last 6 months. Physical examination reveals three nontender ulcers on the lateral aspect of the penile shaft and firm, nontender lymphadenopathy in the right inguinal region. Oral examination and skin inspection are normal. He has no neurologic symptoms. A clinical diagnosis of syphilis is strongly suspected; nontreponemal and treponemal serologic tests for syphilis are ordered.
Based on this information, which one of the following best represents the clinical stage of syphilis in this man?

Figure 1. Nontender Ulcers on Penile Shaft
Photograph credit: Negusse Ocbamichael, PA; Public Health—Seattle & King County STD Clinic

Figure 2. Syphilis: Natural History and Staging
Illustration: David H. Spach, MD
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Question Last Updated
March 16th, 2025
March 16th, 2025
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