A 37-year-old woman was referred to clinic for treatment of otosyphilis. She reported a relatively sudden decrease in hearing in her left ear. Her examination was only notable for sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear, with no neurologic symptoms or signs. Laboratory studies included serologic syphilis testing, and results showed a positive enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR), with a titer of 1:64. She does not have a penicillin allergy.
Which one of the following is the preferred treatment of otosyphilis in this woman?
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Question Last Updated
March 16th, 2025
March 16th, 2025
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