A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with primary syphilis based on a non-painful genital ulcer and positive syphilis serologic tests. He reports one new male and one female sex partner in the past 90 days. Both partners are contacted and instructed to come to the clinic for evaluation. The female partner reports sexual contact with the 42-year-old man about 3 weeks ago. She has no symptoms and says she had negative testing for bacterial sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and HIV about 6 months ago. She does not have any antibiotic allergies.
What would you recommend for the female sex partner regarding her management as a syphilis contact?
Sign In or Register Progress Not Saved!
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Since you are not signed in, your progress won't be saved.
Question Last Updated
November 4th, 2021
November 4th, 2021
Steps to Acquire CE for this Question Bank Topic:
1
Answer
Answer all questions
2
Score 80%+
Answer correctly
3
Claim CE
Choose CNE or CME+MOC
4
Give Feedback
Complete survey
5