A 47-year-old man with HIV is evaluated for a diffuse rash on his chest and back. He has a CD4 count of 428 cells/mm3 and an HIV RNA level less than 40 copies/mL. He was last tested for sexually transmitted infections, including syphilis, 12 weeks ago and all test results were negative. Laboratory studies show a positive treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and a positive Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test with a titer of 1:512. He has never been previously diagnosed with or treated for syphilis. He has no neurologic or ocular symptoms; he is not allergic to penicillin.
Which one of the following options is the recommended treatment of secondary syphilis in this man with HIV?
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Question Last Updated
March 16th, 2025
March 16th, 2025
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