A 31-year-old gender nonbinary individual presents with a 2-day history of vaginal itching and vulvar erythema. They report one prior episode of similar symptoms earlier this year, which resolved with the use of an over-the-counter topical antifungal cream. They deny other underlying medical conditions, and they do not take any medications. A wet preparation of the vaginal discharge using 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) demonstrates yeast consistent with vulvovaginal candidiasis. A urine pregnancy test is negative.
Which one of the following is the recommended treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis in this individual?
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Question Last Updated
March 13th, 2024
March 13th, 2024
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