A 47-year-old woman is evaluated for a 7-day history of whitish vaginal discharge with vulvar erythema. She was diagnosed with vulvovaginal candidiasis, and this is her fourth episode of vulvovaginal candidiasis in the past year. Most recently, she was treated 2 months ago with a single 150 mg dose of oral fluconazole, and she responded well to the treatment. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. A vaginal fungal culture is obtained and grows Candida albicans.
Which one of the following is the best next step in managing this woman’s recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis?
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Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
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